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A free floating commentary on culture, politics, economics, and religion based on a passionate commitment to the truth and a desire graciously to refute that which is contrary to it….
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ZENIT: What will happen to the Anglican Use parishes that have been in operation for years?
Msgr. Stetson: At the moment the so-called Anglican Use parishes in the United States are personal parishes of the diocese where they are located, which retain elements of the Anglican tradition, especially the liturgy.
There is no canonical relationship between them or with the Ecclesiastical Delegate of the Pastoral Provision.
Presumably, if an ordinariate is established in the United States, the parishes will pass to the jurisdiction of the new ordinariate and come under the jurisdiction of the prelate of the ordinariate.
Read it all.
Filed under: * Anglican - Episcopal - Anglican: Latest News Archbishop of Canterbury Anglican Provinces Church of England (CoE) * Religion News & Commentary Other Churches Roman Catholic Pope Benedict XVI

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2. Words Matter wrote:
the so-called Anglican Use parishes in the United States are personal parishes of the diocese where they are located, That means they are under the authority of the diocesan bishop, not the Ecclesiastical Delegate (Bp. Myers). “Presumbly” because no one yet knows how these matters will play out. As a “personal parish”, only former Anglicans, their spouses/children, and converts can be registered parishioners. Parish registration is not very important to Catholics, however, so you’ll find a good number of cradle Catholics in Anglican Use parishes. October 27, 8:40 am | [comment link] |
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3. Chris Molter wrote:
I think he means that there is no canonical relationship between the Anglican Use Parishes nor are the under the authority of the Pastoral Provision structure but are under the authority of the local Latin Rite Bishop. Also, I think he referred to the Parishes as “so-called” as a descriptor not as a perjorative since AFAIK, they aren’t officially termed “Anglican Use Parishes”, but that’s become the common moniker for them. October 27, 9:08 am | [comment link] |
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4. Anthony in TX wrote:
As a “personal parish”, only former Anglicans, their spouses/children, and converts can be registered parishioners. This is untrue. A personal parish means the parish has no geographical boundaries. One does not have to reside within a particular territory to belong to the parish. Any person may register as a parishioner. October 27, 9:09 am | [comment link] |
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5. Words Matter wrote:
Anthony - I have been registered in two Anglican Use parishes and what I posted was what I was told in both. Perhaps it’s no longer true, as I’ve been in regular Latin Rite parishes for several years now. October 27, 10:45 am | [comment link] |
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6. advocate wrote:
Anthony, canonically when a personal parish is chartered, it is designated in the charter who its membership is supposed to be. Folks who do not belong to that particular group (e.g., a campus chapel designated for faculty, students, staff and their families, or those of Italian, German, Mexican, Polish etc. heritage) belong to their territorial parish. Now, who registers as someone who is active in that parish is a different issue. But you cannot formally be a member if your status does not conform to the discriptor of the particular group served by the parish. It is technically the same among territorial parishes. You are supposed to be a member of your territorial parish. While you may claim “membership” elsewhere, you are still a member of the parish of the territory in which you reside by virtue of your domicile. So…if you want to get married, have a child baptized, etc. in your territorial parish, you have the right based on your domicile, even if you have been attending elsewhere. October 27, 11:26 am | [comment link] |
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Okay, if this is not the correct identifier for these “so-called” parishes, what is the correct term? His choice of language is belittling and offensive.
I’m sorry, but this statement is entirely opaque to me. Can anyone translate what Msgr. Stetson just said in to the English language?
If he does not actually know, why doesn’t he just say so?
October 27, 8:17 am | [comment link]